Cyclotomic Integers: Conjugations and the norm of a divisor
Definition 1: σ(p,ψ(η))
σ(p,ψ(η)) = (p,σψ(η))
NOTE: In other words, if A is a prime divisor for a prime p, then σA divides g(α) implies that g(α)σψ(η) ≡ 0 (mod p).
Proposition 1:
Let σi be a conjugation of cyclotomic integers, let g1(α), g2(α) be cyclotomic integers, and let A be a divisor.
Then, to say g1(α) ≡ g2(α) mod σiA is equivalent to saying σ-ig1(α) ≡ σ-ig2(α) mod A.
Proof:
(1) If A is a power of a prime divisor, say A = Pν, and if σA divides g(α), then pν divides g(α)*σψ(η)ν
By definition, we say that Pν divides g(α) if g(α)ψ(η)ν ≡ 0 (mod pν)
By σA divides g(α), we mean that g(α)σψ(η)ν ≡ 0 (mod pν)
(2) This implies that pν divides σ-1g(α)*ψ(η)ν.
(a) g(α)σψ(η)ν ≡ 0 (mod pν) means that g(α) is divisible by a conjugate to P which is σ1P.
(b) This is the same as saying that σ-1g(α) is divisible by P.
(3) Therefore it shows that A divides σ-1g(α).
This follows since A dividing a cyclotomic integer is the same as showing σ-1g(α)ψ(η)ν ≡ 0 (mod p).
(4) If A,B are relatively prime and σ(AB) = σ(A)σ(B) divides g(α) then both σ(A) and σ(B) divide g(α), both A and B divide σ-1g(α), and therefore, AB divides σ-1(α).
This is the same reasoning as in step #3.
(5) This shows that, for any A, g(α) ≡ 0 (mod σA) implies σ-1g(α) ≡ 0 (mod A).
(6) Then, g(α) ≡ 0 (mod σiA) implies σ-1g(α) ≡ 0 (mod σi-1A), ...., σ-ig(α) ≡ 0 (mod A).
(7) Conversely, σ-ig(α) ≡ 0 (mod σλ-1-i(σiA)) implies g(α) = σ-(λ-1)+iσ-ig(α) ≡ 0 (mod σiA).
(8) Thus, (g1 - g2) ≡ 0 (mod σiA) is equivalent to σ-i(g1 - g2) ≡ 0 (mod A), as was to be shown.
QED
Proposition 2:
If A is any divisor, there is a positive integer whose divisor is equal to the norm of A.
Proof:
(1) The norm of a divisor is defined to be:
A*σA*σ2A*...*σλ-2A.
(2) From this definition, it is easy to see that the norm of a product is the product of norms.
(3) So, that this theorem is proven if we can show that it is true for prime divisors.
(4) By the nature of the prime divisor, we know that it is divisor for an odd prime p so we are done.
QED
σ(p,ψ(η)) = (p,σψ(η))
NOTE: In other words, if A is a prime divisor for a prime p, then σA divides g(α) implies that g(α)σψ(η) ≡ 0 (mod p).
Proposition 1:
Let σi be a conjugation of cyclotomic integers, let g1(α), g2(α) be cyclotomic integers, and let A be a divisor.
Then, to say g1(α) ≡ g2(α) mod σiA is equivalent to saying σ-ig1(α) ≡ σ-ig2(α) mod A.
Proof:
(1) If A is a power of a prime divisor, say A = Pν, and if σA divides g(α), then pν divides g(α)*σψ(η)ν
By definition, we say that Pν divides g(α) if g(α)ψ(η)ν ≡ 0 (mod pν)
By σA divides g(α), we mean that g(α)σψ(η)ν ≡ 0 (mod pν)
(2) This implies that pν divides σ-1g(α)*ψ(η)ν.
(a) g(α)σψ(η)ν ≡ 0 (mod pν) means that g(α) is divisible by a conjugate to P which is σ1P.
(b) This is the same as saying that σ-1g(α) is divisible by P.
(3) Therefore it shows that A divides σ-1g(α).
This follows since A dividing a cyclotomic integer is the same as showing σ-1g(α)ψ(η)ν ≡ 0 (mod p).
(4) If A,B are relatively prime and σ(AB) = σ(A)σ(B) divides g(α) then both σ(A) and σ(B) divide g(α), both A and B divide σ-1g(α), and therefore, AB divides σ-1(α).
This is the same reasoning as in step #3.
(5) This shows that, for any A, g(α) ≡ 0 (mod σA) implies σ-1g(α) ≡ 0 (mod A).
(6) Then, g(α) ≡ 0 (mod σiA) implies σ-1g(α) ≡ 0 (mod σi-1A), ...., σ-ig(α) ≡ 0 (mod A).
(7) Conversely, σ-ig(α) ≡ 0 (mod σλ-1-i(σiA)) implies g(α) = σ-(λ-1)+iσ-ig(α) ≡ 0 (mod σiA).
(8) Thus, (g1 - g2) ≡ 0 (mod σiA) is equivalent to σ-i(g1 - g2) ≡ 0 (mod A), as was to be shown.
QED
Proposition 2:
If A is any divisor, there is a positive integer whose divisor is equal to the norm of A.
Proof:
(1) The norm of a divisor is defined to be:
A*σA*σ2A*...*σλ-2A.
(2) From this definition, it is easy to see that the norm of a product is the product of norms.
(3) So, that this theorem is proven if we can show that it is true for prime divisors.
(4) By the nature of the prime divisor, we know that it is divisor for an odd prime p so we are done.
QED
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